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Kama Sutra Question: If Kama Sutra was intended for the Upper & Leisure class of the Indian population, is there some valuable material for the lower and middle course? How much of those Hinduism principles did he retain so that the lower/middle class can hear from the text as well? What's Vatsyayana's targeted demographic of viewers when he wrote the Kama Sutra? Was it exclusive to the leisure class of the Indian society? Or does it also include the lower class? There's evidence that suggests that the text is more appropriate to the aristocrats, because the clinics described require money and time that the peasants do not have. The fact that Vatsyayana is likely a member of the elite class, deduced from his sophisticated understanding of Hinduism and how a nobleman evening is like, might be an additional indication that his written work is biased towards the top course. These facts leads to the question: if the publication is still partial to the aristocrats, did he keep the basic principles of Hinduism throughout his job so that it might also be a valuable guideline for the lower group members? As much as the Kama Sutra apparently highlights how extravagant a nobleman's life should be like, the nature of the novel deeply interlocks its ideas with the three basic Hinduism teachings that ultimately would be good for the lower class to practice the text too. Being a part of the Gupta Empire, Vatsyayana lived in a society that was heavily influenced by Hinduism, and this influence is portrayed by his stress on the basic teachings of Hinduism throughout the Kama Sutra. That isn't any doubt that he profoundly values the thoughts of dharma, kama, artha and moksha as shown in his writings, and also urges all men to practice them, starting at a young age. Even though he never...